Thursday, December 25, 2014

        English for Bank Exam : Spotting Errors Exercise 


Directions: Some of the sentences are grammatically correct and some are incorrect. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark that part. If there is no error, mark that part as your answer.

1. Another baffling change1/ that I notice in him now-a-days2/ is that he avoids to speak to me.3/ No error4
2.He lay the watch on the table1/ and then forgot all about it2/ when he went out.3/ No error4
3.    While it is apparent1/ that biotechnology offers significant benefits2/ adequate attention has not been focussed to this       vital area.3/ No error4
4.    There is a need1/ to revising Government policies2/ on controlling unauthorized constructions.3/ No error4
5.    If you had seen1/ yesterday’s cricket I am sure2/ would have enjoyed seeing our team bat.3/ No error/4
6.    When he will come1/ I will2/ make sure3/ I meet him.4/ No error5
7.    The traveller being weary1/ he2/ sat by3/ woodside to rest.4/ No error5
8.    He did not1/ and could not have2/ understood3/ the full facts of the case4/. No error5
9.    Neither1/ Rohit nor2/ Kabir have done his3/ lesson.4/ No error5
10.    I am opposed1/ to the plan of action not because2/ it is ill concieved but that3/ it seems impractical4/. No error5
11.    He as well as you1/ is tired of2/ this long3/ and troublesome affair4/. No error5
12.    Along the1/ northern frontier of India2/ is seen3/ the Himalayas mighty in their splendour4/. No error5
13.    The recommendations of the committee1/ that the age should be lowered down2/immediately3/ was not accepted4/. No error5
14.    Each of the students whom1/ I have chosen to take part2/ in the discussion have3/ indicated that he4/ will be happy to do so. No error5
15.    Our country need1/ a number of2/ self sacrificing3/ and devoted political leaders4/. No error5.
16.    We erect1/ monuments in the memory 2/of the great lest their achievements3/might be4/ forgetten. No error5.
17.    He used rather harsh words1/ in denouncing2/ her but he must have had3/ some very strong reasons to do so4/. No error5.
18.    Since he has not1/ yet attained the age of eighteen2/, he had no right3/ to vote in the present election4/. No error5
19.    I am disappointed1/ in not having saw2/ any place while3/ I was in Delhi on vacation4/. No error5
20.    What India needs today1/ are more scientists2/ technicians3/ and planners4/. No error5
21.    No sooner did1/ the thief saw the 2/policeman than3/ he ran away4/. No error5
22.    Neither the size1/ nor the colour2/ of the gloves3/ were right4/. No error5
23.    If it was possible1/ to get near2/ where one  of these eruptions took place3/, we could have a grand sight4/. No error5
24.    Most of us are not aware1/ that2/ eating some varities3/ of mushrooms result4/ in death. No error5
25.    After1/ Nepoleon had lost2/ the battle of Waterloo in 1815, he had been 3/exiled to4/ the Island of St. Helena. No error5

Answers

1(c) say ‘speaking’ for ‘to speak’,
2(a) say ‘laid’ for ‘lay’,
3(c) use ‘on’ in place of ‘to’,
4(b) to revise, 5(e) no error,
6(a) say ‘comes’ for ‘will come’,
7(b) drop ‘he’,
8(a) Add ‘understand’ after ‘did not’, 9(c) use ‘has’, 10(c) say ‘but because’, 11(e) no error, 12(c) say ‘are seen’, 13(d) say ‘were not’, 14(c) say ‘has’, 15(a) say ‘needs’,
16(d) say ‘should be’,
17(d) say ‘for doing so’,
18(c) say ‘ he has’,
19(b) say ‘in not having seen’,
20(b) say ‘is’, 21(b) say ‘see’,
22(d) say ‘was’, 23(a) say ‘if it were possible’, 24(d) say ‘results’,
25(c) say ‘was exiled’.

Monday, September 22, 2014

Directions: Some of the sentences are gramatically correct and some are incorrect. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark that part. If there is no error, mark that part as your answer.

1. Another baffling change1/ that I notice in him now-a-days2/ is that he avoids to speak to me.3/ No error4
2.He lay the watch on the table1/ and then forgot all about it2/ when he went out.3/ No error4
3.    While it is apparent1/ that biotechnology offers significant benefits2/ adequate attention has not been focussed to this vital area.3/ No error4
4.    There is a need1/ to revising Government policies2/ on controlling unauthorized constructions.3/ No error4
5.    If you had seen1/ yesterday’s cricket I am sure2/ would have enjoyed seeing our team bat.3/ No error/4
6.    When he will come1/ I will2/ make sure3/ I meet him.4/ No error5
7.The traveller being weary1/ he2/ sat by3/ woodside to rest.4/ No error5
8.    He did not1/ and could not have2/ understood3/ the full facts of the case4/. No error5
9.    Neither1/ Rohit nor2/ Kabir have done his3/ lesson.4/ No error5
10.    I am opposed1/ to the plan of action not because2/ it is ill concieved but that3/ it seems impractical4/. No error5
11.    He as well as you1/ is tired of2/ this long3/ and troublesome affair4/. No error5
12.    Along the1/ northern frontier of India2/ is seen3/ the Himalayas mighty in their splendour4/. No error5
13.    The recommendations of the committee1/ that the age should be lowered down2/immediately3/ was not accepted4/. No error5
14.    Each of the students whom1/ I have chosen to take part2/ in the discussion have3/ indicated that he4/ will be happy to do so. No error5
15.    Our country need1/ a number of2/ self sacrificing3/ and devoted political leaders4/. No error5.
16.    We erect1/ monuments in the memory 2/of the great lest their achievements3/might be4/ forgetten. No error5.
17.    He used rather harsh words1/ in denouncing2/ her but he must have had3/ some very strong reasons to do so4/. No error5.
18.    Since he has not1/ yet attained the age of eighteen2/, he had no right3/ to vote in the present election4/. No error5
19.    I am disappointed1/ in not having saw2/ any place while3/ I was in Delhi on vacation4/. No error5
20.    What India needs today1/ are more scientists2/ technicians3/ and planners4/. No error5
21.    No sooner did1/ the thief saw the 2/policeman than3/ he ran away4/. No error5
22.    Neither the size1/ nor the colour2/ of the gloves3/ were right4/. No error5
23.    If it was possible1/ to get near2/ where one  of these eruptions took place3/, we could have a grand sight4/. No error5
24.    Most of us are not aware1/ that2/ eating some varities3/ of mushrooms result4/ in death. No error5
25.    After1/ Nepoleon had lost2/ the battle of Waterloo in 1815, he had been 3/exiled to4/ the Island of St. Helena. No error5

Answers
1(c) say ‘speaking’ for ‘to speak’,
2(a) say ‘laid’ for ‘lay’,
3(c) use ‘on’ in place of ‘to’,
4(b) to revise, 5(e) no error,
6(a) say ‘comes’ for ‘will come’,
7(b) drop ‘he’,
8(a) Add ‘understand’ after ‘did not’, 9(c) use ‘has’, 10(c) say ‘but because’, 11(e) no error, 12(c) say ‘are seen’, 13(d) say ‘were not’, 14(c) say ‘has’, 15(a) say ‘needs’,
16(d) say ‘should be’,
17(d) say ‘for doing so’,
18(c) say ‘ he has’,
19(b) say ‘in not having seen’,
20(b) say ‘is’, 21(b) say ‘see’,
22(d) say ‘was’, 23(a) say ‘if it were possible’, 24(d) say ‘results’,
25(c) say ‘was exiled’.

Wednesday, September 03, 2014

CTRL combination shortcut keys in Excel 2007( important for banking exam)

Key                                   Description
CTRL+PgUp  Switches between worksheet tabs, from left-to-right.
CTRL+PgDn  Switches between worksheet tabs, from right-to-left.
CTRL+SHIFT+(  Unhides any hidden rows within the selection.
CTRL+SHIFT+)  Unhides any hidden columns within the selection.
CTRL+SHIFT+&  Applies the outline border to the selected cells.
CTRL+SHIFT_  Removes the outline border from the selected cells.
CTRL+SHIFT+~  Applies the General number format.
CTRL+SHIFT+$  Applies the Currency format with two decimal places (negative numbers in parentheses).
CTRL+SHIFT+%  Applies the Percentage format with no decimal places.
CTRL+SHIFT+^  Applies the Exponential number format with two decimal places.
CTRL+SHIFT+#  Applies the Date format with the day, month, and year.
CTRL+SHIFT+@  Applies the Time format with the hour and minute, and AM or PM.
CTRL+SHIFT+!  Applies the Number format with two decimal places, thousands separator, and minus sign (-) for negative values.
CTRL+SHIFT+*  Selects the current region around the active cell (the data area enclosed by blank rows and blank columns).

In a PivotTable, it selects the entire PivotTable report.
CTRL+SHIFT+:  Enters the current time.
CTRL+SHIFT+"  Copies the value from the cell above the active cell into the cell or the Formula Bar.
CTRL+SHIFT+Plus (+)  Displays the Insert dialog box to insert blank cells.
CTRL+Minus (-)  Displays the Delete dialog box to delete the selected cells.
CTRL+;  Enters the current date.
CTRL+`  Alternates between displaying cell values and displaying formulas in the worksheet.
CTRL+'  Copies a formula from the cell above the active cell into the cell or the Formula Bar.
CTRL+1  Displays the Format Cells dialog box.
CTRL+2  Applies or removes bold formatting.
CTRL+3  Applies or removes italic formatting.
CTRL+4  Applies or removes underlining.
CTRL+5  Applies or removes strikethrough.
CTRL+6  Alternates between hiding objects, displaying objects, and displaying placeholders for objects.

CTRL+8  Displays or hides the outline symbols.
CTRL+9  Hides the selected rows.
CTRL+0  Hides the selected columns.
CTRL+A  Selects the entire worksheet.

If the worksheet contains data, CTRL+A selects the current region. Pressing CTRL+A a second time selects the current region and its summary rows. Pressing CTRL+A a third time selects the entire worksheet.

When the insertion point is to the right of a function name in a formula, displays the Function Arguments dialog box.

CTRL+SHIFT+A inserts the argument names and parentheses when the insertion point is to the right of a function name in a formula.
CTRL+B  Applies or removes bold formatting.
CTRL+C  Copies the selected cells.

CTRL+C followed by another CTRL+C displays the Clipboard.
CTRL+D  Uses the Fill Down command to copy the contents and format of the topmost cell of a selected range into the cells below.
CTRL+F 

Displays the Find and Replace dialog box, with the Find tab selected.

SHIFT+F5 also displays this tab, while SHIFT+F4 repeats the last Find action.

CTRL+SHIFT+F opens the Format Cells dialog box with the Font tab selected.
CTRL+G  Displays the Go To dialog box.

F5 also displays this dialog box.
CTRL+H  Displays the Find and Replace dialog box, with the Replace tab selected.
CTRL+I  Applies or removes italic formatting.
CTRL+K  Displays the Insert Hyperlink dialog box for new hyperlinks or the Edit Hyperlink dialog box for selected existing hyperlinks.
CTRL+N  Creates a new, blank workbook.
CTRL+O  Displays the Open dialog box to open or find a file.

CTRL+SHIFT+O selects all cells that contain comments.
CTRL+P  Displays the Print dialog box.

CTRL+SHIFT+P opens the Format Cells dialog box with the Font tab selected.
CTRL+R  Uses the Fill Right command to copy the contents and format of the leftmost cell of a selected range into the cells to the right.
CTRL+S  Saves the active file with its current file name, location, and file format.
CTRL+T  Displays the Create Table dialog box.
CTRL+U 

Applies or removes underlining.

CTRL+SHIFT+U switches between expanding and collapsing of the formula bar.
CTRL+V 

Inserts the contents of the Clipboard at the insertion point and replaces any selection. Available only after you have cut or copied an object, text, or cell contents.

CTRL+ALT+V displays the Paste Special dialog box. Available only after you have cut or copied an object, text, or cell contents on a worksheet or in another program.
CTRL+W  Closes the selected workbook window.
CTRL+X  Cuts the selected cells.
CTRL+Y  Repeats the last command or action, if possible.
CTRL+Z  Uses the Undo command to reverse the last command or to delete the last entry that you typed.

CTRL+SHIFT+Z uses the Undo or Redo command to reverse or restore the last automatic correction when AutoCorrect Smart Tags are displayed.

Top of Page Top of Page
Function keys
Key  Description
F1  Displays the Microsoft Office Excel Help task pane.

CTRL+F1 displays or hides the Ribbon, a component of the Microsoft Office Fluent user interface.

ALT+F1 creates a chart of the data in the current range.

ALT+SHIFT+F1 inserts a new worksheet.
F2  Edits the active cell and positions the insertion point at the end of the cell contents. It also moves the insertion point into the Formula Bar when editing in a cell is turned off.

SHIFT+F2 adds or edits a cell comment.

CTRL+F2 displays the Print Preview window.
F3  Displays the Paste Name dialog box.

SHIFT+F3 displays the Insert Function dialog box.
F4  Repeats the last command or action, if possible.

When a cell reference or range is selected in a formula, F4 cycles through the various combinations of absolute and relative references.

CTRL+F4 closes the selected workbook window.
F5  Displays the Go To dialog box.

CTRL+F5 restores the window size of the selected workbook window.
F6  Switches between the worksheet, Ribbon, task pane, and Zoom controls. In a worksheet that has been split (View menu, Manage This Window, Freeze Panes, Split Window command), F6 includes the split panes when switching between panes and the Ribbon area.

SHIFT+F6 switches between the worksheet, Zoom controls, task pane, and Ribbon.

CTRL+F6 switches to the next workbook window when more than one workbook window is open.
F7  Displays the Spelling dialog box to check spelling in the active worksheet or selected range.

CTRL+F7 performs the Move command on the workbook window when it is not maximized. Use the arrow keys to move the window, and when finished press ENTER, or ESC to cancel.
F8  Turns extend mode on or off. In extend mode, Extended Selection appears in the status line, and the arrow keys extend the selection.

SHIFT+F8 enables you to add a nonadjacent cell or range to a selection of cells by using the arrow keys.

CTRL+F8 performs the Size command (on the Control menu for the workbook window) when a workbook is not maximized.

ALT+F8 displays the Macro dialog box to create, run, edit, or delete a macro.
F9  calculates all worksheets in all open workbooks.

SHIFT+F9 calculates the active worksheet.

CTRL+ALT+F9 calculates all worksheets in all open workbooks, regardless of whether they have changed since the last calculation.

CTRL+ALT+SHIFT+F9 rechecks dependent formulas, and then calculates all cells in all open workbooks, including cells not marked as needing to be calculated.

CTRL+F9 minimizes a workbook window to an icon.
F10  Turns key tips on or off.

SHIFT+F10 displays the shortcut menu for a selected item.

ALT+SHIFT+F10 displays the menu or message for a smart tag. If more than one smart tag is present, it switches to the next smart tag and displays its menu or message.

CTRL+F10 maximizes or restores the selected workbook window.
F11  Creates a chart of the data in the current range.

SHIFT+F11 inserts a new worksheet.

ALT+F11 opens the Microsoft Visual Basic Editor, in which you can create a macro by using Visual Basic for Applications (VBA).
F12  Displays the Save As dialog box.

Monday, September 01, 2014



SSC CGL 2014 SYLLABUS TIER 1 2 3, SSC CGL EXAM PATTERN,
Those candidates who are preparing for SSC CGL must start their preparation after notification. If they prepare well between notification publication and Preliminary exam, then they can easily Qualify. And if they worked harder, then they might get better marks. The candidates should prepare according to SSC CGL SYLLABUS given here for better preparation.
 SSC CGL SYLLABUS 2014 TIER 1
1. General Intelligence and Reasoning:
This section is based on Questions from  Series (number, figurative), similarities and differences, analogy, space visualization. Spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgement. Decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation. Direction sense test, Blood relations, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification. Arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding. Statement conclusion, syllogism in reasoning etc. The topics are Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/Number Analogy. Figural Analogy, Ranking test, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/Number Classification. Figural Classification, Input-Output questions, Problem Solving, Word Building, Seating arrangement, Numerical Operations, symbolic Operations. Questions on Dies, Clock, Calender. Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams. Drawing inferences, folding & un-folding of Punched hole/pattern. Figural Pattern – folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching. Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/roll numbers. Small & Capital letters/numbers coding, decoding and classification. Embedded Figures, Critical thinking. Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence etc.
2. English Language:
Through this section, a candidate's ability to understand and correct English etc. would be tested.
Questions on Fill in the Blanks, Idioms & Phrases, Jumbled sentences (ordering), One word substitution. Synonyms, Antonyms, Spellings/Detecting Mis-spelt words, Common errors, sentence improvement, Passage, Cloze test are asked.
3. Quantitative Aptitude (Q.A.): 
This section is based on questions on Percentages. Ratio & Proportion. Square and cube roots. Surds and indices. Lcm and hcf, Averages, Age problems. Simple interest and Compound Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership. Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Boat and Streams, Pipes and Cisterns. Numbers, Algebra, Geometry, Trigonometry, Heights and Distances.
Divisions and Remainders, decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers. Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangles (centres, congruence, similarity), In circles and circum-circle. Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons. Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone. Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelopiped.
Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio. Degree and Radian Measures, Circle and its chords. tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle. common tangents to two or more circles, Standard Identities. Complementary angles, Heights and Distances. Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.
 4. General Awareness (G.A. Syllabus):
Tier 1 Syllabus of SSC CGL 2014-General Awareness will have questions on current events, India and its neighbouring countries. Also questions from History. Geography, Economic Scene,Culture, General Policy & Scientific Research are asked. Scientific research includes physics, chemistry and Biology. 
SSC CGL SYLLABUS 2014 Tier II
Paper-1 : Quantitative Ability : 
The paper will have questions based on Number Systems. Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions, Ratio and Proportion. Allegation and Mixture, Average, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount. relationship between Numbers, Fundamental Arithmetical Operations. Percentage, , Use of Table and Graphs, charts, Time and Distance. Time and work, Trigonometry, Geometry, roots, lcm and hcf, surds and indices (most of the topics same as tier 1 but higher difficulty level).
Paper-2 : English Language & Comprehsion :
Complete syllabus of English is below:
Spot the error, questions on filling blanks, synonyms and antonyms, spelling error detection,  shuffling of sentence parts.  Comprehension passages, idioms & phrases, 1 word substitution. Sentence improvement, active & passive voices, Narration.
Paper-3 :
Statistics for Investigator Grade-II, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation & Compiler in RGI.
Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis, Correlation and Regression. Collection Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data, Measures of Central Tendency. Measures of Dispersion, Probability Theory, Time Series Analysis. Index Numbers, Random Variable and Probability Distributions. Sampling Theory, Analysis of Variance, Statistical Inference.
IMPORTANT NOTE: The questions in Paper 1 of exam will be of 10th class level, Paper-II of 10+2 level and Paper-III of graduation level.
SSC CGL SYLLABUS TIER III: PERSONALITY TEST/INTERVIEW
Marks for Interview cum Personality Test (except non-interview posts)- 100 marks.
Skill Test is conducted for tax assistant posts in Central Excise & Income Tax. CPT is conducted for Assistants in CSS.
Data Entry Speed Test (DEST): speed of data entry must be 8,000 Key Depression/hr. on Computer.
Data Entry Speed Skill Test at 2000 key depressions in 15 min will be tested and candidates will have to qualify it as it will be of qualifying nature.
NOTE: Tier-I examination is for screening the candidates for Tier-II examination for various papers. Marks of Tier 1 will be counted in final selection.
SSC CGL 2014 Exam Pattern
SSC CGL 2014 EXAM PATTERN TIER 1
It consists of 4 sections in a single paper. It is conducted for sorting out candidates.
Subject Name-Maximum Marks-Questions
1. General Intelligence and Reasoning
2. Quantitative Aptitude (QA)
3. General Awareness (GA)
4. English
All sections carry 50 marks and 50 questions. One mark for each right question and 0.25 negative marks to wrong answer(s). Total time given is 2 hours (40 minutes extra for VH candidates).

SSC CGL 2014 Tier II Exam Pattern: 
it consist of 3 papers. Every candidate has to give two paper out of 3.
Paper 1. Arithmetical Ability (For All posts other than SI in CPOs). 100 questions are asked carrying 200 marks. 0.50 marks for each wrong answer.
Paper 2. English Language and comprehension test (All Posts). 200 questions are asked in this section carrying 200 marks. 0.25 marks for each wrong answer given by candidate.
Paper 3. Mathematics/ Statistics/ Economics/ Commerce (for Compiler/ Statistical/ Investigators posts). It has 100 questions carrying 200 marks and 0.50 marks for each wrong answer.
Time allowed for each paper is 2 hours.

Friday, August 29, 2014

Solved MCQ of Database Management System (DBMS) Set - 1

1. DBMS is a collection of ………….. that enables user to create and maintain a database.
A) Keys
B) Translators
C) Program
D) Language Activity
2. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called
A) Relations
B) Domains
C) Queries
D) All of the above

3. In an ER model,  ……………. is described in the database by storing its data.
A) Entity
B) Attribute
C) Relationship
D) Notation
4. DFD stands for
A) Data Flow Document
B) Data File Diagram
C) Data Flow Diagram
D) Non of the above
5. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a
A) Hierarchical schema
B) Network schema
C) Relational Schema
D) All of the above
6. ……………… table store information about database or about the system.
A) SQL
B) Nested
C) System
D) None of these
7. …………..defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain pairs.
A) Instance
B) Schema
c) Program
D) Super Key
8. ……………… clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.
A) Select
B) Group-by
C) Having
D) Order by
9. A logical schema
A) is the entire database
B) is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
C) Describes how data is actually stored on disk.
D) All of the above
10. ………………… is a full form of SQL.
A) Standard query language
B) Sequential query language
C) Structured query language
D) Server side query language
Answers:
1. C) Program
2. B) Domains
3. A) Entity
4. C) Data Flow Diagram
5. A) Hierarchical schema
6. C) System
7. B) Schema
8. C) Having
9. B) is a standard .. accessible parts.
10. C) Structured query language 

Solved MCQ of Database Management System (DBMS) Set - 2

1. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row uniquely is called ……………..
A) Alternet Key
B) Primary Key
C) Foreign Key
D) None of the above
2. …………….. is used to determine whether of a table contains duplicate rows.
A) Unique predicate
B) Like Predicate
C) Null predicate
D) In predicate

3. To eliminate duplicate rows ……………… is used
A) NODUPLICATE
B) ELIMINATE
C) DISTINCT
D) None of these

4. State true or false
i) A candidate key is a minimal super key.
ii) A candidate key can also refer to as surrogate key.
A) i-true, ii-false
B) i-false, ii-true
C) i-true, ii-true
D) i-false, ii-false
5. DCL stands for
A) Data Control Language
B) Data Console Language
C) Data Console Level
D) Data Control Level
6. …………………… is the process of organizing data into related tables.
A) Normalization
B) Generalization
C) Specialization
D) None of the above
7. A ………………. Does not have a distinguishing attribute if its own and mostly are dependent entities, which are part of some another entity.
A) Weak entity
B) Strong entity
C) Non attributes entity
D) Dependent entity
8. …………….. is the complex search criteria in the where clause.
A) Substring
B) Drop Table
C) Predict
D) Predicate
9. ………………… is preferred method for enforcing data integrity
A) Constraints
B) Stored Procedure
C) Triggers
D) Cursors
10. The number of tuples in a relation is called its …………. While the number of attributes in a relation is called it’s ………………..
A) Degree, Cardinality
B) Cardinality, Degree
C) Rows, Columns
D) Columns, Rows
Answers:
1.       B) Primary Key
2.       A) Unique predicate
3.       C) DISTINCT
4.       C) i-true, ii-true
5.       A) Data Control Language

6.       A) Normalization
7.       A) Weak entity
8.       D) Predicate
9.       A) Constraints
10.   B) Cardinality, Degree

Solved MCQ of Database Management System (DBMS) Set - 3

1. State true or false.
i) Select operator is not a unary operator.
ii) Project operator chooses subset of attributes or columns of a relation.
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-True, ii-True
C) i-False, ii-True
D) i-False, ii-False
2. …………… database is used as template for all databases created.
A) Master
B) Model
C) Tempdb
D) None of the above

3. One aspect that has to be dealt with by the integrity subsystem is to ensure that only valid values can be assigned to each data items. This is referred to as
A) Data Security
B) Domain access
C) Data Control
D) Domain Integrity
4. ………………….. operator is basically a join followed by a project on the attributes of first relation.
A) Join
B) Semi-Join
C) Full Join
D) Inner Join
5. Which of the following is not a binary operator in relational algebra?
A) Join
B) Semi-Join
C) Assignment
D) Project
6. Centralizing the integrity checking directly under the DBMS ………….. Duplication and ensures the consistency and validity of the database.
A) Increases
B) Skips
C) Does not reduce
D) Reduces
7. Which of the following is/are the DDL statements?
A) Create
B) Drop
C) Alter
D) All of the above
8. In snapshot,  …………………. clause tells oracle how long to wait between refreshes.
A) Complete
B) Force
C) Next
D) Refresh
9. ……………… defines rules regarding the values allowed in columns and is the standard mechanism for enforcing database integrity.
A) Column
B) Constraint
C) Index
D) Trigger
10. For like predicate which of the following is true.
i) % matches zero of more characters.
ii) _ matches exactly one character.
A) i-only
B) ii-only
C) Both of them
D) None of them
Answers:
1.       C) i-False, ii-True
2.       B) Model
3.       D) Domain Integrity
4.       B) Semi-Join
5.       D) Project
6.       D) Reduces
7.       D) All of the above
8.       D) Refresh
9.       B) Constraint
10.   C) Both of them

MCQ of Database Management System with answer set-4

1. The number of attributes in relation is called as its .....................

A) Cardinality    B) Degree   C) Tuples  D) Entity

2. The DBMS utility, ...................... allows to reconstruct the correct state of database from the backup and history of transactions.

A) Backup   B) Recovery    C) Monitoring    D) Data loading

3. In the ........... normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.

 A) First    B) Second    C) Third     D) Fourth  

4. In RDBMS, Data is presented as a collection of ............

A) Table    B) Attributes    C) Relations    D) Entities


5. A .................. normal form normalization will be needed where all attributes in a relation tuple are not functionally dependent only on the key attribute.

A) First    B) Second    C) Third    D) Fourth

6. To select all column from the table the syntax is:

A) select all from table_name      B) select * from table_name
C) select from table_name           D) Non of the above

7. If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of the other composite key, a normalization called ................ is needed.

 A) DKNF     B) BCNF    C) Fourth    D) Third

8. Identify the criteria for designing database from the point of view of user

A) No redundancy     B) No inapplicable attributes
C) Uniformity in naming & definitions of the data items     D) All of the above

9. The ............ operator preserves unmatched rows of the relations being joined.

A) Inner join     B) Outer join       C) Union      D) Union join

10. The reasons leading to popularity of client-server systems are:

A) More powerful workstations on LANs
B) Needed for graphical user interfaces of end users.
C) Remove computing load for presentation services from the system managing a shared database resource.
D) All


 Answers:
1. B) Degree
2. B) Recovery
3. A) First
4. C) Relations
5. C) Third
6. B) select * from table_name
7. B) BCNF
8. D) All of the above
9. B) Outer join
10. D) All

Wednesday, August 27, 2014


 Question 1
A group of computers and other devices connected together is called …………….
A
Network
B
Networking
C
Intranet
D
both b and c
Question 2


Which of the following network is used to connect a number of computers to each other by cables in a single location?
A
WAN
B
LAN
C
MAN
D
both b and c

Question 3
Transmission Lines are also called as………………….
A
circuits
B
channels
C
trunks
D
circuits channels, or trunks
Question 4



The Switching Elements are also called as ……….
A
host
B
subnet
C
Interface Message Processors (IMPs)
D
both a and b

Question 5
The signal which has infinitely many levels of intensity over a period of time is called ………
A
digital signal
B
analog signal
C
both a and b
D
sound signal
Question 6



The absolute value of a signal's highest intensity is called……….
A
Peak Amplitude
B
Frequency
C
Phase
D
Both a and c

Question 7
The distance a simple signal can travel in one period is called …………
A
Wavelength
B
propagation speed
C
Frequency
D
both a and b
Question 8



A noise where foreign signal enters the path of the transmitted signal is called ……
A
Impulse
B
Inter modulation
C
cross talk
D
both b and c

Question 9
Which type of channel it is where the number of users are stable and the traffic is not bursts?
A
static channel
B
dynamic channel
C
free channel
D
both a and c
Question 10



With Slotted Aloha, a …………. sends out small clock tick packets to the outlying stations.
A
distributed clock
B
synchronized clock
C
centralized clock
D
Digital clock

Question 11
If there is only one station with a packet to send, this guarantees that there will ………….. For that packet.
A
never be a collision
B
be a collision
C
be an improvement
D
direction
Question 12



The _______ layer provides a well defined service interface to the network layer, determining how the bits of the physical layer are grouped into frames
A
Data Link
B
Physical
C
Network
D
Session

Question 13
________ is the process in which the receiver tries to guess the message by using redundant bits
A
Connection-Oriented Service
B
Forward error correction
C
both a and b
D
Confirm
Question 14



In ______ type of service, no connection is established before hand or afterwards.
A
Unacknowledged Connectionless Service
B
acknowledged Connectionless Service
C
point to point
D
both a and b

Question 15
The range of sequence number which is the concern of the receiver is called the receive sliding window.
A
receive sliding window.
B
sliding window
C
frame buffer
D
both a and b
Question 16



Data Link Control Protocol (HDLC) is implemented at the ………
A
Data link layer
B
Network layer
C
transport layer
D
Physical layer

Question 17
The maximum size of the window in a Sliding Window Protocol is _______
A
2m – 1
B
2m + 1
C
2m
D
2m-1
Question 18
The _______ layer is the topmost layer in the subnet.
A
Network
B
application
C
transport
D
physical

Question 19
The subnet gets increasingly loaded with packets causing increase in delay in the delivery of packets, which can lead to more retransmission, and ultimately increasing more and more traffic. This is a concept called as _________
A
blockage
B
Traffic jam.
C
Congestion
D
both a and b
Question 20



______ is a static algorithm in which every incoming packet is sent out on every outgoing line except the one it arrives on. This method usually generates vast number of duplicate packets..
A
Flooding
B
Wait and watch
C
congestion
D
both a and c

Question 21
The Internet addresses are ______ bits in length in IPV4 addressing scheme
A
16
B
64
C
32
D
48
Question 22
In addresses for _______ networks, the first 16 bits specify a particular network, and the last 16 bits specify a particular host.
A
class A
B
class C
C
class B
D
class D

Question 23
The number of network segments on which the datagram is allowed to travel before a router should discard it is called _______.
A
Time to Live (TTL)
B
Time to Die(TTD)
C
self recognition
D
both a and b
Question 24



An application process is assigned a process identifier number (process ID), which is likely to be _______ each time that process is started.
A
Similar
B
smaller
C
different
D
larger

Question 25
A ________ is a 16-bit number used by the host-to-host protocol to identify to which higher-level protocol or application program (process) it must deliver incoming messages
A
connection
B
UDP
C
port
D
TCP
Question 26



A UDP datagram of _____ bytes is acceptable to all implementations
A
516
B
1024
C
256
D
512

Question 27
The service access points in Session Layer are called ________________
A
Accessing point
B
activation point
C
Session Service Access Points
D
both a and b
Question 28



Sessions are ended with ________ primitive
A
B-RELEASE. Request
B
R-RELEASE. request
C
S-RELEASE. request
D
A-RELEASE. request

Question 29
A procedure included in the caller’s address space by the linker is known as ______.
A
local procedure
B
Universal procedure
C
addressing linker
D
both a and b
Question 30



The ______ protocol is based on end-to-end delivery.
A
SCTP
B
TCP
C
SMTP
D
SCTP

Question 31
The sender SMTP establishes a TCP connection with the destination SMTP and then waits for the server to send a ____ Service ready message..
A
420
B
320
C
220
D
120
Question 32
There is _____ number of standard content types in MIME
A
7
B
5
C
9
D
4

Question 33
To avoid ambiguity, the names assigned to machines must be carefully selected from a ______ with complete control over the binding between the names and IP addresses
A
Table
B
look up table
C
name space
D
name table
Question 34



A name in the _______ name space is a sequence of characters without structure
A
address
B
Doman
C
Flat
D
Both a and b

Question 35
The ____ namespace is based on a hierarchical and logical tree structure
A
DNS
B
Address
C
table
D
both a and b
Question 36



The ______ are programs that run on DNS clients and DNS servers and that create queries to extract information from name servers.
A
transporter
B
distributers
C
Resolvers
D
both a and b

Question 37
The next header t is an _____ field of Authentication Header that identifies the type of what follows.
A
16-bit
B
64-bit
C
8-bit
D
32-bit
Question 38
The client code recognizes the SSL request and establishes a connection through TCP port ____ to the SSL code on the server
A
1023
B
402
C
443
D
8080

Question 39
A _____ should be considered as a means to divide the world into two or more networks: one or more secure networks and one or more non-secure networks.
A
firewall
B
ESP
C
SSL
D
both a and b
Question 40



The _______ is used to provide integrity check, authentication, and encryption to IP datagram’s.
A
UDP
B
Transport layer
C
ESP
D
SSL

Question 41
In most Wide Area Networks, the subnet consists of two distinct components: which are they?
A
Transmission Lines and Switching Elements.
B
host and subnet
C
Transmission Lines and host
D
subnet and Switching Elements.
Question 42



There are two types of designs for communication subnets: they are …………..
A
Point-to-Point channels and Broadcast channels
B
packet-switched subnet and store-and-forward
C
Multicasting and Broadcasting
D
Point-to-Point channels and store-and-forward

Question 43
The main hardware components of a graphics workstation are ……………..
A
Thick coax, optical fiber
B
twisted pair , thin coax
C
twisted, optical fiber
D
Thick coax, Thin coax
Question 44



S/NET is another kind of ………….network with an ………….for switching.
A
fiber optic, active star
B
active star , fiber optic
C
twisted cable, active network
D
active network, twisted cable

Question 45
The Aloha protocol is an OSI _______ protocol for LAN networks with broadcast topology
A
layer 1
B
layer 4
C
layer 2
D
layer 3
Question 46
Thus hamming code for the ASCII character “a” is given as ………………
A
10111001111
B
10111001000
C
10111001001
D
10111001

Question 47
Coding schemes can be divided into two broad categories…………, ……………..
A
character coding, integer coding
B
hamming coding and block coding
C
Hamming coding and convolution coding
D
Block Coding and Convolution Coding.
Question 48



The IP Control Protocol (IPCP) is the NCP for IP and is responsible for ………., …………., and disabling the IP protocol on both ends of the point-to-point link.
A
Reframing , enabling
B
Deleting, reframing
C
configuring, enabling,
D
configuring, reframing

Question 49
The _______ is a unidirectional protocol that has no flow or error control.
A
Simplest
B
Simplex
C
TCP/IP protocol
D
Simplest or Simplex
Question 50



Flooding is also a……... algorithm, usually generates ………... of duplicate packets.
A
Static, vast number
B
dynamic , vast number
C
Static, less number
D
dynamic , less number

Question 51
Distance Vector Routing is a……... routing algorithm, it consists of a data structure called a ………
A
Static , routing table
B
Dynamic, look-up table
C
Dynamic, routing table
D
Static, look-up table
Question 52



Each IP address can identify the ………... or ………... of IP packets.
A
source, destination
B
length, size
C
source, length
D
Size , destination

Question 53
In process to process delivery, an application process is assigned a ………….., which is likely to be …………….each time that process is started
A
process identifier number , different
B
process identifier number, same
C
source, mixed
D
Source, similar
Question 54



The Intel format is called ………... and the SPARC format is called ……………..
A
little endian, big endian,
B
big endian, little endian
C
open source, little endian
D
Big endian, open source

Question 55
The Post Office Protocol is an ………... protocol with both client (sender/receiver) and …………...functions
A
electronic mail, server (storage)
B
three layer , server
C
UDP, transfer
D
TCP, server
Question 56



A zone is a contiguous portion of a ………….. of the DNS namespace whose database records exist and are managed in a……….. DNS database file.
A
domain, particular
B
Class, particular
C
tree, local
D
Domain, every

Question 57
The DNS server that received the initial ……... query checks it’s ………… is called…………...
A
Recursive, zones
B
simple, zones
C
simple, class
D
Recursive, class
Question 58



The purpose of a proxy server is to control exchange of data between the two networks at …………..instead of ………..
A
an application level , an IP level
B
network layer, physical layer
C
an application layer, physical layer
D
Network layer , an application layer

Question 59
PGP is one of the protocols used to provide security at the ……….. It is designed to create authenticated and confidential ……….
A
application layer, e-mails.
B
Network layer, packets
C
application layer, packets
D
network layer , e-mails
Question 60



State weather the following statement is true or false for Internetwork layer. 1).Other internetwork-layer protocols are IP, ICMP, IGMP, ARP, and RARP. 2). Internet Protocol (IP) is the least important protocol in this layer 3). The internetwork layer, also called the internet layer or the network layer, provides the “virtual network”
A
1. True, 2. true, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3.true
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D
1. true, 2. true, 3. false

Question 61
State weather the following statement is true or false for ISDN – Integrated Services Digital NetworkISDN is an effort to standardize subscriber services, provide user/network interfaces 2). the goal of ISDN is to form a Local area network that provides Peer-to-Peer connectivity over digital media 3). It is a set of protocols that combines digital telephony and data transport services
A
1. True, 2. false, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3. false
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D
1. true, 2. true, 3. false
Question 62



State weather the following statement is true or false for Token Bus 1).It is a linear or tree-shaped cable onto which the stations are attached. 2). the token propagates around the logical ring, with only the token holder being permitted to transmit frames 3). In this token bus arrangement The physical order in which the stations are connected to the cable is very important.
A
1. False, 2. true, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3. false
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D
1. true, 2. true, 3. false

Question 63
Find the transmitted code if the frame is (MSB) 1101011011 (LSB) and generator polynomial is x4 + x + 1.
A
1101011011 1110
B
1101011111 1110
C
1101011011 1111
D
1101011011
Question 64



State weather the following statement is true or false for Point-to-Point Protocol 1). It is still in widespread use for dial-up TCP/IP connections 2) Point-to-point circuits in the form of asynchronous lines have long been the mainstay for data communications. 3). Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a network-specific standard protocol with STD number 51.
A
1. True, 2. true, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3. false
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D
1. true, 2. false, 3. true

Question 65
State weather the following statement is true or false for Hierarchical Routing 1). In hierarchical routing, the routers are divided into regions. 2) Each router is having the idea about internal structure of other regions 3). Two level hierarchies may be insufficient hence it may be necessary to group the regions into clusters.
A
1. True, 2. true, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3. false
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D
1. true, 2. false, 3. true
Question 66



State weather the following statement is true or false for IPV6 Addressing 1). IPV6 is a routable protocol that addresses, routes, fragments, and reassembles packets 2).IPV6 is a connectionless, unreliable datagram protocol. 3). An IPV6 packet consists of an IPV6 header and an IPV6 payload.
A
1. True, 2. true, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3. false
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D
1.false, 2. true, 3. true

Question 67
State weather the following statement is true or false for Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP). 1). SCTP uses only few known ports in the TCP space. 2).SCTP is a new transport protocol at the same layer as TCP and UDP. 3). SCTP is a new reliable, message oriented transport layer protocol.
A
1. True, 2. true, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3. false
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D
1.false, 2. true, 3. true
Question 68



State weather the following statement is true or false for Exception Reporting 1). If the user runs into trouble, this trouble can be reported to the peer using a S-U-EXCEPTION-REPORT. request primitive. 2). Exception reporting does not only apply to user-detected errors 3). The service provider can generate an S-P-EXCEPTION-REPORT.indication to notify the user about internal problems within the session layer.
A
1. True, 2. true, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3. false
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D
1.false, 2. true, 3. true

Question 69
State weather the following statement is true or false for Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions 1).The general syntax for MIME header fields is not the same as that for RFC 2822. 2).MIME header field names are never significant, but the cases of field values can b. 3). A MIME-compliant message must contain a header field with the following verbatim text: MIME-Version: 1.0
A
1. True, 2. true, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3. false
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D
1.false, 2. true, 3. true
Question 70



State weather the following statement is true or false for Sendmail. 1).Sendmail is a command-line tool designed for most UNIX-like operating systems. 2).It define a method of transferring mail, and acts as a client/server that supports multiple mail protocols 3). Sendmail exists in both open source and proprietary software packages.
A
1. True, 2. False, 3. true
B
1. true, 2. false, 3. false
C
1. false, 2. false, 3. false
D




1 A 2B   3 D  4 C  5A  6 A  7 A  8 C  9 1  10 3  11 A  12 A  13 B  14  A  15 A  16 A  17 A  18 A  19 B  20 A  21 C  22 C  23 A  24  C  25 C  26  A  27 C  28 C  29 A  30 C  31 C  32 A  33C  34 C  35 A  36 C  37 C   38 C  39 A  40 C  41 A  42 B  43  44 A  45  A  46 C  47 4  48 C  49 D  50 A  51  C   52 A  53 A  54 A  55 A  56 A  57 A  58 A  59 A  60 B  61 A   62 4  63 A  64 D  65 D  66 A   67 4    68 A  69 A  70 A